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cliffsnotes of insanity
cliffsnotes of insanity
It’s ironic that a title that essentially means “human being” has come to connote the idea of divinity in the minds of so many Christians. “Son of man” is a Hebrew idiom that just means, well, “man,” or gender inclusively, human dude/dudette. The prophet Ezekiel used it to refer to himself all the time, and for Ezekiel, it connoted a sort of humility. As my brother says of himself, “I’m just a guy.” Of course, the Hebrew word for “man” was also the name of the first man, Adam. So “son of man” could also be a point of pride—infused as Adam was with the glory of God, made as he was in God’s image, “son of Adam” could be worn as a badge of honor. But essentially, between those two poles, it simply meant “human being.”
Scholars pretty much universally acknowledge that the application of the title “son of man” to Jesus in the New Testament is derived from two sources in the Hebrew Bible. One we have noted already with Ezekiel.
Daniel 7
The other use was very popular in Jesus’ day in apocalyptic circles (such as Jesus himself moved in), and it derived from a second century BCE apocalyptic book—the book of Daniel. Daniel 7:13-14, to be precise:
As I watched in the night visions,
I saw one like a son of man
coming with the clouds of heaven.
And he came to the Ancient One
and was presented before him.
To him was given dominion
and glory and kingship,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him.
His dominion is an everlasting dominion
that shall not pass away,
and his kingship is one
that shall never be destroyed.
Now eventually this “son of man” figure from Daniel 7 came to be seen as a human messianic figure, but it is more likely that the original author of this passage had in mind an angelic being. Note that it does not say, “I saw a son of man,” but rather, “I saw one like a son of man.” Similarly, the angel Gabriel is “like the appearance of a man” (8:15; 10:18), has the voice of a man (8:16), and is “like the resemblance of the sons of man” (10:16). In 9:21; 10:5; and 12:6-7, angels are simply referred to as “men.” So the language of “one like a son of man” gives the strong impression that the figure in 7:13 is an angel. This archangel is given an “everlasting dominion” over “all peoples, nations, and languages.” Moreover, it is said in verse 27,
The kingship and dominion
and the greatness of the kingdoms under the whole heaven
shall be given to the people of the holy ones of the Most High;
their kingdom shall be an everlasting kingdom,
and all dominions shall serve and obey them.
The people of the holy ones of the Most High. The “holy ones” here refer to the angelic hosts of the Most High, as is the case invariably throughout the Dead Sea Scrolls (roughly contemporary literature of the same genre). The “people” of the holy ones refer to Israel, who as a nation share in the dominion of their champion archangel, who fights on their behalf. This is a perfect representation of the standard ancient cosmology, in which what takes place in the heavenly realm is mirrored below on earth—dominion is given to the champion angel of Israel, and the dominion is shared with the nation itself. What this describes is the victory of Yahweh’s angelic forces (who stand behind Israel) over the demonic forces of chaos (who stand behind the nations). In Daniel 10:21, the archangel Michael is identified as the prince (or champion) of Israel, and later still it becomes clear that the angelic figure, the “one like a son of man,” of chapter 7 is indeed identified as Michael:
At that time Michael, the great prince, the protector of your people, shall arise. There shall be a time of anguish, such as has never occurred since nations first came into existence. But at that time your people shall be delivered, everyone who is found written in the book. Many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt. Those who are wise shall shine like the brightness of the sky, and those who lead many to righteousness, like the stars forever and ever.1
The eternal dominion described in chapter 7, ushered in by “one like a son of man” who ascends to the side of the Ancient One, is paralleled in chapter 12 by Michael’s rise and his victory over Israel’s enemies, ushering in an era of everlasting peace. No mention is made in chapter 12 of any other agent, and Michael is specifically identified as the agent assigned to the protection of Israel (which is the duty of a king).
1 Enoch
The book of 1 Enoch (also known as the Similitudes of Enoch) provides yet another depiction of a “son of man” figure who is given preeminence in the heavens, who shares a throne with Yahweh, judges the nations and is the champion of the people of God. This agent is referred to as a “being whose countenance had the appearance of a son of man,” who is nevertheless like “one of the holy angels.” It is difficult to determine whether this refers to a human or to an angel. After initially being described as “having the appearance of a son of man,” he is thereafter referred to as “that son of man.” It seems as though this reflects a time period before “Son of Man” became a well-worn title for a messianic agent, but he is no doubt identified here as the messiah (“the Anointed”), as well as the “Elect One.” The author alternates between these three names. The son of man is not Michael, as in Daniel 12. Michael is here identified alongside Gabriel, Raphael and Phanuel as subservient to the son of man. At the end of the book, this son of man figure seems to be identified as Enoch, but some scholars believe this may have been an addition. At any rate, the exact classification of the son of man figure here, whether human or angelic, is ambiguous, and perhaps intentionally so. In apocalyptic circles, it was commonly believed that exalted humans became like the angels. This was the case in the Qumran community, who believed that as the elect, they already shared in the fellowship of angels, as a foretaste of the kingdom which was to come after the final judgment. The apocalyptic prophet Jesus of Nazareth also taught that exalted humans became like the angels (Mark 12:25). So it may be that here in 1 Enoch, what we have is a bona-fide son of man (human being) who was nevertheless exalted to angelic status at the end of days.
And there I saw One who had a head of days [i.e. Yahweh], and His head was white like wool, and with Him was another being whose countenance had the appearance of a son of man, and his face was full of graciousness, like one of the holy angels. And I asked the angel who went with me and showed me all the hidden things, concerning that son of man, who he was, and whence he was, and why he went with the Head of Days. And he answered and said unto me: “This is the son of man who hath righteousness, with whom dwells righteousness, and who reveals all the treasures of that which is hidden, because the Lord of Spirits has chosen him, and whose lot is to have preeminence before the Lord of Spirits in uprightness forever.” (1 Enoch 46:1-3)
Here the son of man, likely an exalted human being, is said to have been granted preeminence before God, for eternity. In other words, next to God, nothing in all creation outranks him.
Gospel of Mark
Now according to the Gospels, Jesus used the term “son of man” in a variety of different ways. In regard to himself, he sometimes used it in the same sense as Ezekiel did, to emphasize his humility (e.g., “the Son of Man has no place to lay his head”). Other times, he uses it in a sense that is open to interpretation, but probably just means “human being.” A famous instance is in Mark 2:27-28:
Then he said to them, “The sabbath was made for man, not man for the sabbath; so the son of man is lord even of the sabbath.”
In this case, “son of man” could be a reference to himself, and a claim that he has the unique authority to override God’s sabbath ordinances (or at least the authority to disagree with the Pharisaic interpretations of those ordinances). But the more likely scenario is that Jesus is here drawing out the deeper meaning of the sabbath law, which is a principle of rest—a humanizing principle. In this case, “son of man” is not a title for himself, but carries its ordinary sense, as follows:
The sabbath was made for the human, not the human for the sabbath; therefore, the human is lord even of the sabbath.
Even if, however, Jesus did mean to refer to himself uniquely as “son of man” in this case, this does not amount to anything like a claim to divinity, as will become clear in future posts that will deal with much better examples of this sort of ostensible claim to divine prerogatives.
Scholars differ over whether Jesus ever used “Son of Man” for himself in the sense of the coming cosmic agent of judgment, or whether Jesus was identified as this messianic “Son of Man” by his disciples after their visions of Jesus exalted to the right hand of God. There is no way to be sure. It is possible that Jesus saw himself as the last prophet before the coming of the Son of Man, which would explain why he generally refers to this eschatological Son of Man in the third person, and seems to portray the Son of Man as a defender of Jesus’ own honor (see below), but for our purposes, it is sufficient to take the Gospel accounts at face value. The only question we are concerned with is whether these Son of Man sayings constitute claims for divinity, and it is clear that whatever the case may be with the historical Jesus, for the Jesus of the Gospels, these sayings do not constitute claims to divinity.
Those who are ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation, of them the Son of Man will also be ashamed when he comes in the glory of his Father with the holy angels. (Mark 8:38)
See the parallel in the Similitudes:
And on the day of their affliction there shall be rest on the earth,
And before them they shall fall and not rise again:
And there shall be no one to take them with his hands and raise them:
For they have denied the Lord of Spirits and His Anointed.
The name of the Lord of Spirits be blessed. (1 Enoch 48:10)
As in Mark, here in the Similitudes, the rejection of the Messiah is equated with the rejection of God himself, and those who rejected the Messiah will not be raised to life when the Son of Man is revealed (his revelation is depicted in the verses prior). As in Mark, the Son of Man is equated with the Messiah, and so those who are ashamed of the Messiah will be punished by him when he is revealed at the end of days. In both Mark and in the Similitudes, the Son of Man is accompanied by angels who are at his service. The parallel imagery from later in Mark’s gospel is more overtly dependent upon Daniel 7:
Then they will see “the Son of Man coming in clouds” with great power and glory. Then he will send out the angels, and gather his elect from the four winds, from the ends of the earth to the ends of heaven. (Mark 13:26-27 )
The wording has changed from “one like a son of man” to simply “the Son of Man,” but the imagery of “coming in clouds” makes it clear that Mark is borrowing from Daniel 7. By now, the “one like a son of man” has been shortened to “son of man,” hence the angelic nature of the agent has been lost. The Son of Man, now equated with the Messiah, is understood to be a human figure who, as in the Similitudes has been given preeminence, commanding even the angels. There is no claim to divinity here. What we see is divine agency. The “Son of Man” is the human agent whom Yahweh has chosen to exercise his authority on the day of judgment. Why then, you may ask, does the high priest charge Jesus with blasphemy, when Jesus claims to be this Son of Man? If the Son of Man is merely human, what was blasphemous about his claim?
Well, a number of things could be considered blasphemous by the high priest. Let’s take a look at the passage itself, before evaluating it:
The high priest asked him, “Are you the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One?”
Jesus said, “I am. And ‘you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of the Power,’ and ‘coming with the clouds of heaven.’”
Then the high priest tore his clothes and said, “Why do we still need witnesses? You have heard his blasphemy! What is your decision?” All of them condemned him as deserving death. Some began to spit on him, to blindfold him, and to strike him, saying to him, “Prophesy!” The guards also took him over and beat him. (Mark 14:61-65)
First, it is important to note that Jesus is here (roughly) quoting Daniel 7, but the high priest was a Sadducee, and the Sadducees did not accept Daniel as scripture. More importantly, however, is the context of Jesus’ claim. Jesus has just been accused of threatening to destroy the temple, and to rebuild it himself. In other words, Jesus has been accused of threatening the regime of the very high priest who is standing over him. When the high priest asks Jesus if he is the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One (again, parallelism), Jesus responds in the affirmative, and then proceeds to identify himself as the eschatological Son of Man who will come in judgment. In other words, Jesus is saying, “You better watch out, because by condemning me, you are condemning yourself.” Although Jesus did not technically threaten to destroy the temple (he did predict it would be destroyed, and he did stage a miniature coup d’état there for a week—according to Mark—holding the temple elite hostage on threat of populace revolt), Jesus is now confirming the accusation himself by implying that the high priest would see him coming on the clouds to overthrow the current temple regime and establish his own.
The accusation of blasphemy means either one or both of the following:
(1) Blasphemy against God’s temple. Jesus has threatened its destruction and has now threatened the dynasty of the current high priesthood.
(2) Jesus is falsely attributing to himself the prerogatives that only God’s authentic messianic agent has. Because Jesus is on trial (in other words, defeated), he is clearly not who he claims to be. He is thus blasphemously claiming that God has sent him when God patently has not.
There is nothing like a claim to divinity here, and there is no indication that the high priest thought Jesus was claiming anything like divinity. There are all sorts of forms of blasphemy, and the kind of blasphemy in which a human claims to be God is quite rare, especially for a Jew such as Jesus. Moreover, when they then proceeded to mock him, they taunted him by challenging him to “prophesy.” If the charge against him was a blasphemous claim to divinity, why would they tell him to prophesy? Clearly this indicates that his blasphemy was falsely claiming to speak for God: in other words, they executed him as a false prophet.
February 5, 2010 - 10:16 AM
Concerning Mark 2:5-11, would you say that Jesus’ claim is not that he is (equal to) God, as the teachers of the law charge, but that God gave him, the son of man, authority to forgive sins?
February 5, 2010 - 10:27 AM
I’ll get to that. Have patience. I don’t want to tip my hand, but in a nutshell: “equality with God” was not controversial. Claiming equality with God when you weren’t in fact Yahweh’s unique agent, that was controversial.
February 5, 2010 - 2:49 PM
Thom,
If this is how you read the scripture, why do you think the early Christians understood this in the sense that Christ was divine?
“We have also as a Physician the Lord our God, Jesus the Christ, the only-begotten Son and Word, before time began, but who afterwards became also man, of Mary the virgin.” Ignatius of Antioch, To the Ephesians, 7 (A.D. 110).
Ignatius was a student of John the Apostle, so it would be safe to assume that his teaching comes from John.
I am not trying to start a fight, I am just confused here.
February 5, 2010 - 3:01 PM
Jon,
“The early Christians” disagreed about a lot of things, including this very question. Ignatius represents the proto-orthodox view, but there are all sorts of other groups that never viewed Jesus as God in the same sense as Yahweh is God.
You will have to be patient, Jon. In comment #36 on my introductory post I have listed a rough outline of all the posts in this series. I can’t answer every question in every comment thread. I’ll try to answer any conceivable question before the series is finished. I just can’t do it over and over again.
But the fact that Ignatius was a disciple of John doesn’t really determine anything about what John must have thought. I am a disciple of Mark Moore, and we disagree about a lot. Plus, Ignatius wasn’t a Jew and probably wasn’t familiar with all the Jewish ideas that were circulating back in John’s formative years. In other words, John’s teaching could have had different connotations to Ignatius than they did to John.
All I can do is show how it is possible and perhaps probable to understand the claims of the NT, in light of contemporary literature.
February 5, 2010 - 3:03 PM
But I should probably add, Jon, that because you’re a Roman Catholic, and because I’m a historian of second temple Judaism, we are very unlikely to come to much agreement about these issues, given each of our prior assumptions and commitments.
February 5, 2010 - 3:18 PM
What do you mean “historian of second temple Judaism”? How would that contradict my understand of patristics?
I would assume that if Ignatius was a student of John they would understand Christ in a similar way. It would be radically different if John only understood him as a person with a mission and Ignatius understood him as divine. Would John not correct him?
I have numerous biblical text I am confused about, but perhaps if I understood your thesis first it would help me. Are you stating that the gospels do not believe Christ was divine, but that was something that the early Church made up instead?
February 5, 2010 - 3:23 PM
You’ll just have to wait it out, Jon.
In the end you may decide you’re misinterpreting Ignatius, too.
February 5, 2010 - 3:28 PM
I look forward to it. I am just not sure how the early church could have got this wrong when it seems so essential to a classic understanding of salvation.
But that is something we disagree on. Theosis that is.
February 5, 2010 - 3:31 PM
You keep using “early church” like it’s a monolith.
And if the divinity of Jesus seems essential to a “classic understanding of salvation,” that’s probably because a “classic understanding of salvation” isn’t biblical.
February 5, 2010 - 3:36 PM
I guess I just put heavy weight into the early councils of the Church and the early fathers when it comes to interpreting things. If your view is correct then why is it so radically different then the fathers?
I do understand the early bishops as being unified. Even if there is disagreement that is why they have councils. This issue was discussed with Arius.
“…And in one Lord Jesus Christ,the Son of God,begotten from the Father,only-begotten,that is,from the substance of the Father,God from God,light from light,true God from true God,begotten not made,of one substance with the Father…” Creed of Nicea (A.D. 325).
So your assumption is that Nicea could not be further from the truth?
February 5, 2010 - 3:39 PM
Somebody please politely explain to Jon why he’s having trouble understanding my methodology.
February 5, 2010 - 3:40 PM
You could?
(*unless Matt could come translate for us)
I am not trying to argue sir. I respect your views and I am trying to understand what you are implying. Then I am trying to reconcile it with my own understanding.
February 5, 2010 - 3:41 PM
I did explain. I’ll give somebody else a shot.
February 5, 2010 - 4:50 PM
jon, check your facebook.
February 5, 2010 - 4:59 PM
I’ll try, Thom. I apologize if I misrepresent you.
Jon, unless I’m mistaken, Thom is suggesting that the NT nowhere claims that Jesus is divine (i.e., equal with Yahweh). Rather, he believes that to be a later development. and suggests instead that the early church fathers (at least the proto-orthodox ones) and their theological descendants (those Christians who affirm the creeds, at the least) read the divinity of Jesus into the texts without sufficient warrant.
His argument does not concern the church fathers because they postdate the writing of the NT. Moreover, as he stated, there were church fathers, contemporaries of Ignatius, who disagreed with him on this very point. Even if Thom were concerned with taking on Ignatius et al, I’m pretty sure he’d claim that being a disciple of someone doesn’t guarantee complete agreement. (Actually, he made that point when he referred to his relationship with Mark Moore.) If that were the case, it would stand to reason that false teaching could never occur, wouldn’t it?
Concerning Thom’s thesis, I guess you could say that he’s suggesting (some members) of the early church “made it up,” although that should not be construed to suggest that they were intentionally deceptive. (Indeed, they argued from the Scripture.)
I realize that I’ve repeated some of Thom’s statements, but I think that’s because he provided some good responses.
February 5, 2010 - 5:01 PM
Thanks, dude.
Yup. “Made it up,” not in the sense of intentional deception, but in the sense of misreading the text in light of their own assumptions about what it must mean.
‘Nuff said on this I think.
February 5, 2010 - 6:01 PM
Hmm, well I haven’t read the post yet but I’ll take a stab. (Keep in mind that I am not taking Thom’s side on the issue of Christ’s divinity, but rather clarifying about methodology.) To over-generalize, I guess it’s the classic (pun intended) difference between Roman Catholicism and Protestantism (especially in its Restorationist-ish forms), the latter basically holding to four tenets:
(1) Everything outside of Scripture itself is “tradition.”
(2) Tradition is helpful only when it lines up with Scripture.
(3) Tradition sometimes/often doesn’t line up with Scripture.
(4) When tradition doesn’t line up with Scripture, we must set it aside.
Tradition loses its status as sacred when it disagrees with Scripture. And, once again, tradition often disagrees with Scripture. (Sometimes it’s not so much “disagrees” but “says it differently in a way that marginalizes the original meaning”.)
Obviously this isn’t rocket science or new to any of us, but this is the approach Thom is taking that is different from Jon’s. Jon has an in-built propensity to see Scripture and tradition being in line more of the time than Thom does, with his Restorationist sense of suspicion toward all tradition.
As for the whole John/Ignatius bit, it’s just not true that because Ignatius was taught by John, whatever Ignatius say should be read back onto John. Perhaps it puts the burden of proof upon the one claiming that they disagree or differ, but I think this is a weight Thom is willing to bear. He’s just not willing to concede ahead of time that he’s wrong, for obvious reasons. And that’s what he would be doing were he to concede – before setting out his argument for what John meant (independently of what Ignatius says later on) – that John and Ignatius mean the same thing.
Anyhow, either I’ve clarified something for someone or I’ve wasted a few paragraphs. Hopefully it’s the former. (And I started this comment a couple hours ago, so everything may have already been cleared up.)
February 5, 2010 - 6:02 PM
Oops, my last sentence was prophetic. If nuff was said before, t’much has been said now.
February 5, 2010 - 6:05 PM
I can never get enuff DeFaz.
February 5, 2010 - 6:08 PM
I’ll just add an addendum to DeFaz’s response. While I do hail from the RM, and that has certainly affected my view of scripture and tradition, as I pointed out to Jon I approach the texts as a historian of the second temple period, which means that more than just being willing to allow disagreement between scripture and tradition, I am also willing to allow disagreement between scripture and scripture, if there’s good reason to see it there.
February 10, 2010 - 3:48 PM
I understand that “son of man” and even “son of God” does not denote divinity, and I also understand that “messiah” does not necessarily denote divinity.
My question is with Jesus’ claim to be messiah in Mark 14:61-65. Jesus seems to be claiming to be (at least one of) God’s anointed, if not THE Anointed.
How can we know which he intended?
If he meant little-M messiah, then that could certainly be the case. If he meant big-M Messiah, than according to your stance that Jesus is/was not God, then he’s a dangerous nutcase, or at least a nutcase.
So what did Jesus mean when he said “I am” to being “the Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One”?
February 10, 2010 - 3:54 PM
Messiah doesn’t denote divinity at all. In Mark 14, according to Mark 14, Jesus is claiming to be THE eschatological Messiah.
This is a non sequitur. Your conclusion doesn’t follow from your premise. Messiah does not equal Deity, in any Jewish text anywhere. So, why would Jesus be a nut case for claiming to be the Messiah, just because he wasn’t God, and never claimed to be. The two aren’t related.
When he said “I am” to being the Messiah, he meant, I am the Messiah.
I’m not sure if I understand your question properly.
February 10, 2010 - 4:10 PM
You answered my question when you said “Messiah does not equal Deity, in any Jewish text anywhere.” Jesus would not have meant or understood “messiah” to be divine.
Many (most?) conservative Christians take “messiah” to be a divine term, so my question was “could Jesus have meant ‘divine Messiah’ when using the word?” You answered it – No.
But he did think he was Messiah. Did the nation of Israel expect one great Messiah, and was Jesus claiming to be that one?
February 10, 2010 - 4:18 PM
Well, probably. In this text, Messiah and Son of Man are conflated. They are in other non-Christian texts of the period as well, but Messiah and Son of Man were not everywhere considered to be the same entity. It may be the case that Jesus believed himself to be the final prophet before the coming of the angelic Son of Man, but then after his death and his disciples had visions of Jesus being exalted, they conflated Jesus with the coming Son of Man that Jesus told them about, and put that conflation on his lips in the Gospels. Or, maybe Jesus really did claim to be the Son of Man who would come in judgment. I think it’s historically doubtful, but not impossible.
As far as the trial narrative in Mark 14 and parallels goes, it is doubtful that this text is historical, primarily because no Christian would have had access to the trial to know what was said. Conservatives will say, “Well Jesus told them all about it during one of the resurrection appearances.” That line of reasoning doesn’t convince me. Most likely what is going on is the problems and tensions of the early Christian communities and their relationship to the temple regime are being projected onto the trial narrative, so that what is being said about Jesus at their time is projected backward onto the trial.
But for the purposes of this series here, those sort of historical questions are irrelevant, because all I am trying to show is that the gospels don’t present Jesus as divine.
I understand that Christians nowadays equate messianity with divinity, but that is only because Christians believe two things about Jesus: (1) he was the messiah; (2) he is God. Therefore, the messiah is God. But in Judaism, those two concepts had nothing to do with each other. So when (some) Christians read his claims to messianity as claims to divinity, that is flagrantly anachronistic.